I’ve been revisiting my Greek verb paradigm notes, and writing out exemplar verbs just to test my memory. I realized as I came across one that I’m not so certain about it. The verb is ἐθέλω, and it is missing principal parts V and VI:
ἐθέλω, ἐθελήσω, ἠθέλησα, ἠθέληκα, -, –
An interesting thing to note is that the perfect and pluperfect active both start in ἠ- (there is no middle/passive perfect or pluperfect, thanks to the missing PP V), but that does not so much trouble me. What I am in a quandary about is whether this verb has a passive at all – or is just lacking a passive aorist and future – due to the missing PP VI. I am not sure what the general rule is (if there is one), nor the reality for this specific verb. My textbook seems silent on this detail.
It would be easy enough to come up with the “forms” of the present indicative passive, for example, since they are the same as for the middle voice:
ἐθέλομαι, ἐθέλῃ/ει, ἐθέλεται, ἐθελόμεθα, ἐθέλεσθε, ἐθέλονται
I guess the question is, does a verb only have a passive voice if there is a distinct aorist passive? I can see how a verb could have active and middle voices, and no passive – only adding the passive when there is a distinct aorist/future. I can imagine the principal parts formulated so the presence of an aorist passive declares the verb to have a passive voice. I can even imagine that at one time the Greek passive was only simple aspect – aorist and future (itself derived from the aorist) – and then they rounded out the passive tenses by using the middle forms. But that is all in the imagination. Would love something a little more concrete…
If you can clear this up for me, I’d be grateful.